all 5 comments

[–]ActuallyNot 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (4 children)

Bear in mind, Leonardo was certainly a homosexual pedophile.

Okay, you're going to have to explain your certainty on that.

[–]jerryk[S] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

Leonardo was formally denounced for sodomy with a teenager when he was a young man, and, his intimate relationship with his apprentice Salai, begun when the boy was just ten years old, is well accepted. And, this is likely just the tip of the iceberg.

[–]ActuallyNot 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Leonardo was formally denounced for sodomy with a teenager when he was a young man

"formally denounced"?

How did that work? Who did the denouncement, what made it formal, and why wasn't he charged?

[–]jerryk[S] 2 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 2 fun -  (1 child)

You can look it up online. It was anonymous, and wasn't repeated. So, they didn't pursue it. But, Leonardo decided to leave town. That may be exactly what the authorities wanted him to do.

[–]ActuallyNot 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

You can look it up online.

I don't need to look it up online. I'm aware of the allegation brought against him. And I'm aware that most men had that allegation brought against them at the time. Which is why I question the certainty. It seems that it was an allegation that people brought against someone they didn't like or who was some competition to their career.

But what I want to understand in how you think this was "formal". And in what way there was a "denouncement".