> Isn’t Israel the most vaccinated country in the world? It is.
> Haven’t half of all Israelis already been vaccinated? Yes, they have.
> Haven’t 90% of all Israelis over 60 (the age-group most likely to die from Covid) already been vaccinated? Yes.
> Then how did “Israel manage to double the number of deaths it accumulated in the prior ten months of the pandemic”…“within two months of intensive inoculation with the Pfizer vaccine”? And, why did “Israel’s Covid-19 cases… spike sharply during the first month of the … mass vaccination campaign.”? And, why “after just 2 months of … mass vaccination” are “76% of new Covid-19 cases.. under 39. Only 5.5% are over 60. 40% of critical patients are under 60.”?
> Did the vaccinations shift the direction of the infection to a different demographic or have the vaccines created a more virulent strain of the virus that targets younger people?
> And, why have more pregnant women suddenly entered “critical care” while Covid-19 cases among infants have soared by whopping “1,300%? (from 400 cases in under two-year-olds on November 20 to 5,800 in February 2021).”
> And, why have Orthodox Jews and the Israeli Arabs experienced a sudden and dramatic shift in cases and fatalities when both groups had similar numbers prior to the vaccination campaign? Here is an excerpt from an interview with journalist Gilad Atzmon who explains what’s actually happened:
> Once the vaccination campaign started, we saw a very interesting shift. While the Orthodox Jews went en masse to get “the jab”, the Palestinians (Israeli Arabs) did not follow this pattern. In the early stages of the vaccination campaign, in January, we saw a rise of 15 times as many morbidity cases in the Orthodox Jewish segment while we saw a significant drop (in morbidity) in the Israeli Arab segment. By not taking the vaccine, the level of morbidity dropped sharply. It was then that I began to figure out there was a connection between vaccination and morbidity.
there doesn't seem to be anything here